This
model paper prepared and compiled by Akula.
Praveen Kumar, SPM,
Papannapet Sub Office-502 303, Medak Division, Andhra
Pradesh(9849636361,8019549939)
Disclaimer:- All
questions/Information provided in this post are Compiled by
A. Praveen
Kumar for in good faith of Postal Assistant exam aspirants. The types
of
questions, number of questions and standard of questions may be vary in
actual
examination. This is my predictions only. Author of blog does
not accepts any
responsibility in relation to the accuracy,
completeness, usefulness or
otherwise, of the contents. Utmost care has
been taken to prepare the model
cum practice paper as per syllabus
prescribed by India Post.
This is a practice paper only.
Previously
the Department filtered the aspirants on the basis of merit and
allowed
1:10 ratio for the examination. Hence the previous pattern and type
of
exam and standard of examination was easy. But this year onwards the
selection process was changed and heavy competition is there for
selection
of Postal Assistant. The Examiner will set tough standard /
medium hard level
to test candidate grasp of basic concepts of
principles, Knowledge, application
level, ability to solve the complex
problems.
Best of luck to all Postal Assistant Exam Aspirants.
MODEL CUM PRACTICE PAPER
Marks: 100 Duration: 2 hours
Instructions to Candidates
1. Answer All the Questions
2. Each question Carries “1” Mark
3. Round off the appropriate choice in OMR sheet
PART-A
(General Knowledge & Current Affairs)
1.
Scientist in the month of December revealed a planet that could support
life, orbits a Sun-like
star near the Earth. What is the name of the
star around which this planet was found orbiting?
1. Tau Ceti 2. Sirius 3. Ophiuchi 4.Gliese 33
2.Park Guen –hye has beenelected as the first women President of
1. Thailand 2.Vietnam 3. South Korea 4.Maurritius
3. The term “Chucker” is used in which sports?
1.Football 2. Horse Racing 3. Wrestling 4. Polo
4. Which of the following fairs is not correct?
1. Rangaswamy Cup-Hockey 2. Rovers Cup- Football
3.Federation Cup-Badminton 4.Deodhar Trophy-Cricket
5. Who wrote the Book entitled ‘Ghulamgiri’ ?
1. B. R. Ambedkar 2. Narayan Guru 3. Jyotiba Phule 4. M. P. Pillai
6. How many censuses (including the 2011 census) have been carried out since independence?
1. 05 2. 06 3. 07 4. 08
7. Consider the following
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State policy
In India the provisions related to “education” have been embodied in which among the above
1. A & B 2. B & C 3. A & C 4. A&B&C
8. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for
the first time—
1. 25th Amendment Act 2. 26th Amendment Act
3. 24th Amendment Act 4. 27th Amendment Act
9. Who finally approves the draft of Five year plans
1. Parliament and State Legislatures 2.National Development Council
3. Planing Commission 4. Presiodent
10. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy?
1. The doctrine of rebirth 2. The doctrine of Syadvada
3. The doctrine of immortality of soul 4. The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna
11. There is only one edict, in which Ashoka refers himself as king of Magadha. Identify the edict
from the following?
1. The Queens Edict 2.Bhabhru Edict
3. Rock edict of Mashi 4. Dhuali Piller Inscription”
12. During the region of “Krishna Devaraya” which of the following famous temples were built
in Vajayanagar empire?
1. Hampi 2. Hazura 3. Belugam 4. Tirumala
13. Who
changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra
Sanyal to ‘
Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’?
1.Ras Behari Bose 2.Batukeshwar Datt
3. Sardar Bhagat Singh 4. Chandra Shekhar Azad
14. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti
movements by using code given below—
A. Namdeva B. Vallabhacharya C. Ramananda D. Kabir
1. A, B,C,D 2. B,C,D,A 3. C,D,A,B 4. D,A,B, C
15. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time ?
1. At the time of Communal award 2. At the time of riots in Calcutta
3. At the time of riots in Delhi 4. At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
3. At the time of riots in Delhi 4. At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
16. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—
1. Sodium 2.Barium 3.Potassium 4.Calcium
17. A colour blind Person has difficulty in distinguishing between which colours?
1. Black & Blue 2. Green & Violet 3. White & Yellow 4. Green & Red
18. “Minamata” disease is caused by
1. Automobile exhausts containing lead
2. Water Pollution from Sevage
3. Industrial wastes having mercury compounds
4. Wastes from Chemical factories
19. Which one of the following is not a function of Protein?
1. Building up of tissues 2. Catalysing some reactions
3. Growth of bones 4. Repair of torn tissues
20. Mother milk lacks of
a. Vitamin C b. Protin c. Sodium d. Iron
1. a & c 2. b& c 3. a & d 4. b & d
21. The term that best describes the shape of earth is ?
1. Eclipse 2. Geoid 3. Globe 4. Shphere
22. Where on the Earth is located “Sirohi Point”?
1. North Pole 2. Indian Ocean 3. Carabbean sea 4. Antartica
23.
The gulf of Kutch is one of the two two regions on west coast of India,
identified suitable for
Tidal Power Station. Which among the following
is the other one?
1. Gulf of Mannar 2. Gulf of Khamhat 3. Laccadive 4. Konken
24.
The “Hkakabo Razi” which is famous for Hkakabo Razi National Park, is
boarder tri-point
between which of the following countries
1. India- China- Nepal 2. India – Bhutan- China
3. India- Bangladesh- Myanmar 4. India- China - Myanmar
25. Which of the following State is highest density of Post Offices in India
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. West Bengal 4. Tamilnadu
PART-B
MATHEMATICS
Directions—(Q. 26 to 27) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
26. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
1. 1156 2. 1200 3. 1188 4. 1176
27. The Value of ?
1. 2 2. 3/2 3. 4/13 4. 36/13
28.
|
(√ 625 / 11 ×14 ×√25 ×11 / √196 ) is equal to
|
1. 11 2. 8 3.6 4. 5
29. A watch ticks 90 times in 95 seconds and another watch ticks 315 times in 323 sec. If both the
watches are started together, how many times will
they tick together in the first hour?
1. 51 2. 61 3.101 4.111
30. Three
math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test. The average score in
class X is 83. The average
score in class Y is 76.The average score in
class Z is 85. The average score of all students in classes X and Y
together is 79. The
average score of all students in classes Y and Z
together is 81.What is the average for all the three classes?
1. 81 2. 81.5 3. 82 4. 84.5
31.
Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as
water. In what ratio should
these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as
heavy as water?
1. 1:5 2. 2:5 3. 3:5 4. 3:2
32.
In a mixture 60 liters, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If the this
ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity
of water to be further added is:
1. 70 Ltrs 2. 60Ltrs 3. 50 ltrs 4. 40 ltrs
33.
Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks
more than the other
and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The
marks obtained by them are
1. 42 & 33 2. 44 & 35 3. 46 & 38 4. 45 & 36
34.
A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more
than B and B Rs. 5000
more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000,
A receives
1. 13200 2. 14700 3. 14500 4. 13600
35.
The area of a rectangle is 460 square metres. If the length is 15% more
than the breadth, what is
the breadth of the rectangular field?
1. 15 Mtrs 2. 18 Mtrs 3. 20 Mtrs 4. 22 Mtrs
36.
A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while
for covering the sam
e distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the
speed of the boat in still water?
1. 4 Km/h 2. 6 Km/h 3. 8 Km/h 4. 10Km/h
37. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:
1. 2018 2. 2022 3. 2026 4. 2024
38.
A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B
together. If C alone can
finish the work in 40 days, then together all
will finish the work in:
1. 32/3Days 2. 43/3 days 3. 40/3 days 4. 44/3 days
39.
Vinod can do a piece of work in 20 days. Sandeep is 25% more efficient
than Vinod. The number
of days taken by Sandeep to do the same piece of
work is
1. 15 Days 2. 16 days 3. 17 days 4. 14days
40. A
tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three
more similar taps are opened.
What is the total time taken to fill the
tank completely?
1. 3 hrs 15 min 2. 3 hrs 45 min 3. 4 hrs 4. 4 hrs 15 min
41.
Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each
other in 8 seconds. If
one is moving twice as fast the other, then the
speed of the faster train is:
1. 40 Km/h 2. 50Km/h 3.60Km/h 4.70Km/h
42.
A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on
the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what
is the length of the platform?
1. 240 m 2. 260m 3. 280m 4. 270m
43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be
covered by B in:
1. 20 minutes 2. 25 minutes 3. 16 minutes 4. 18minutes
44. By
mixing two brands of tea and selling the mixture at the rate of Rs. 177
per kg, a shopkeeper makes
a profit of 18%. If to every 2 kg of one
brand costing Rs. 200 per kg, 3 kg of the other brand is added,
then how
much per kg does the other brand cost?
1.Rs 116.66 2. Rs 125.34 3. Rs 118.69 4. Rs114.17
44.
A grocer sells rice at a profit of 10% and uses weights which are 20%
less than the market weight.
The total gain earned by him will be :
1. 35.2 % 2.35.7% 3.37.4% 4.37.5%
45.
If simple interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 256 and the rate of
interest per annum equals
the number of years, then the rate of
interest is
1. 16% 2. 18% 3.20% 4.22%
46. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice itself in three years. In how many years
will it be 9 times itself?
1. 5 Years 2. 6 Years 3. 7 Years 4. 4 Years
47.
The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple
interest on the same sum
for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference
between the compound and simple interest for 3 years
will be
1. Rs 66.56 2. Rs 64.89 3.98.56 4.74.57
48.
Ten years ago, Visnuvardhan was thrice as old as Harshavardhan was ,but
10 years hence,
he will be only twice as old. Find Harshvardhan’s
present age
1. 30Years 2. 35 Years 3.40 Years 4.38 Years
49. There
is a seller of cigarette and match boxes who sits in the narrow lanes
of Medak. He prices the
cigarettes at 85 p, but found that there are no
takers. So he reduced the price of cigarette and
managed to sell all the
cigarettes, realising Rs. 77.28 in all. What is the number of
cigarettes?
1. 49 2.89 3. 84 4. 92
50. The
length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the
cost of fencing the
plot @ 26.50 per metre is Rs. 5300, what is the
length of the plot in metres?
1. 40 meters 2.60meters 3. 80meters 4.90meters
PART-C
GENERAL ENGLISH
DIRECTIONS :-( 51-55) Read the following Passage and answer the Questions
The
supervisor would have to change this attitude towards people first. The
staff under him must be
perceived as human beings with feelings and
needs. They are not autonomous within complex work
machinery. One of the
greatest needs of to-days worker is to have a feeling that he is in
control of his
workplace and not vice versa. The best way is to satisfy
this need as far as possible. He must feel first,
that his work is
meaningful. To do this is supervisor must delegate responsibility and
limited authority
for the man to execute his job well. The subordinate
must be properly trained to assume responsibility
and authority. Once he
is ready to assume these he can be made accountable for his job. Very
often supervisors assume all responsibility and accountability for fear
of losing control of the workplace.
This makes workers under him pawns
in a vast chess board. Delegating accountability gives the worker
a
purpose in life and the need to a do a job well Most important is to sit
with each worker and chalk
out common objectives and agreed norms to
achieve them . This gives workers a security as to what is
expected
of
them. When he has met his objectives he certainly has a feeling
achievement. This feeling of
achievement is the greatest motivatior.
51. Responsibility and accountability make a worker
1. Tense and frightened 2. shirk his duties
3. Vulnerable before his supervisor 4. do his job properly
52. Supervisors do not delegate responsibility and authority to their subordinates because
1. Final responsibility is there 2. Subordinates are not capable enough
3. They can’t trust their subordinates
4 they are apprehensive losing their hold on the workplace
53. Orientation of subordinates of common objectives and how to acieve them is
1. a must 2. not very important 3.not at all necessary 4. Optional
54. A humane attitude on the part of the supervisor towards his staff is necessary to
1. Keep them happy 2. get them to work
3. get the best out of them 4.have a congenial atmosphere at workplace
55. The greatest motivator in a workplace is
1. Fulfilment of purpose 2. a sense of security
3. a good supervisor 4. a good environment
Directions—(Q. 56-57) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
56. MENIAL
1.Unskilled 2. Tall 3. Affluent 4.Sick
57. VICARIOUS
1. Ambitious 2. Not experienced personally
3. Nostalgic 4. Vindictive
Directions—(Q. 58–59) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
58. PUERILE
1. Inquisitive 2.matured 3. Impure 4. Original
59. SOBRIETY
1. Moderation 2. Drunkenness 3. Dizziness 4. Stupidity
Directions—(Q. 60–63) (i) In
this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are
underlined in
three separate parts and each one is labelled (1), (2) and
(3) and (4). Read each sentence to find out whether there
is an error
in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error.
60. Critics of government policy / argue that the new measures introduced
(1) (2)
to fight crime are simply papering on the cracks. / No error. (3) (4)
(1) (2)
to fight crime are simply papering on the cracks. / No error. (3) (4)
61. The plans have been under / discussion for a year now,
(1) (2)
but no decision has reached. / No error. (3) (4)
(1) (2)
but no decision has reached. / No error. (3) (4)
62. Two newspapers did / an very effective hatchet job
(1) (2)
on the Prime Minister’s achievements. / No error.
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
on the Prime Minister’s achievements. / No error.
(3) (4)
63. Your argument was clear / to us from the start
(1) (2)
there’s no need to labour the point. / No error. (3) (4)
(1) (2)
there’s no need to labour the point. / No error. (3) (4)
64. Which of the following is a Simple Sentence?
1. I met my friend when I went to the theatre
2. On my way to the theatre, I met my friend
3. I went to the theatre and met my friend
4. While I was in the theatre, I met my friend
65. The following sentence has been transformed into the Passive in four ways. Which transformation
is the best?
They will make him King
1. He will be made King by them.
2. King would be made by them.
3. He was made king by them
4. King will be made by them.
66. In which sentence is the verb in the active voice?
1. They were detained at the gate
2. You have made it easy
3. It has been recently disproved
4. She was known for her talent in music.
67. In which of the following sentences are all articles used correctly?
1. This hospital was rated the most advanced with respect to the technique
s employed for surgery.
2. This hospital was rated the most advanced with respect to the techniques
employed for the surgery
3. This hospital was rated a most advanced with respect to the techniques
employed for surgery
4. This hospital was rated most advanced with respect to the techniques used
for a surgery
68. In which of the following sentences are all Prepositions used correctly?
1. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed towards frogs.
2. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed for frogs.
3. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed into frogs
4. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed from frogs
69. The cricket match proved to be a big draw. Choose the alternative which
best express the meaning of idiom / phrase underlined
1. A keen contest 2. A huge attraction
3. A lovely spectacle 4. A game without any result
|
70. Which of the following is a suitable way to end a letter to a close friend?
1. Write back soon, will you?
2. An immediate reply will be greatly appreciated
3. Reply by return of post
4. Expecting a favourable reply, I remain
71. ________you remember to lock the door?
1. Didn’t 2. Aren’t 3. Haven’t 4. Doesn’t
72. What part of speech is the underlined word or words in the following sentence?
She floated quietly and lazily around the pool.
1. Noun 2. Adverb 3. Preposition 4 Adjective
|
1. Mother wanted son, not to run so fast
2. Mother said son, not to run so fast
3. Mother advised son, not to run so fast
4.Mother ordered son, not to run so fast
74. Having obtained the degree abroad, Harsha returned home. (Choose its
correct compound sentence form)
1. The degree was obtained abroad and Harsha returned home
2.Harsha returned home because he obtained the degree abroad
3. Harsha obtained the degree abroad and he returned home
4. Harsha returned home and he obtained the degree abroad
PART-D
REASONING AND ANALYTICAL ABILITY
76. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the
question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
1. 5 2.11 3.13 4.8
77.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a
group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
1. 19 2. 35 3. 15 4. 21
78. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and
then choose the correct sequence.
A.Wrinkle B. Wriggle C. Writhe D. Wratch E. Wrath
1. D,E,A,B,C 2. E,D,B, A,C 3.D,B,E,A,B 4.E,B,A,C, D
79. In a certain code SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. Howis
FEDS written in that code?
1. 3#©5. 2. 3@%5 3. 3#%5 4. 3#%2
80.
If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is
called ‘Potato’, ‘
Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called
‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called
‘Guava’, which of the following grows
underground ?
1. Potato 2. Guava 3.Apple 4. Banana
81. If
in a certain code, ‘O’ is written as ‘E’, ‘A’, as ‘C’, ‘M’ as ‘I’, ‘S’
as ‘O’, ‘N’ as ‘P’, ‘E’ as
‘M’, ‘I’ as ‘A’, ‘P’ as ‘N’ and ‘C’ as ‘S’,
then how will ‘COMPANIES’ be written in that code?
1. SEIACPAMO 2. SMINCPAMO
3. SEINCPAMO 4. SEINCPMIO
82. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way
while one i different. Choose the odd one.
1. GWOURV 2. LZKMU 3. SFXPMG 4. JOEHNP
83. From
the positions in original figure ‘A’ and ‘C’ move diagonally to
opposite corners
and then one side each clockwise and anticlockwise
respectively. ‘D’ and ‘B’ move two
sides each clockwise and
anticlockwise respectively. Where is ‘A’ now?
1. At the North-East corner 2.At the North-West corner
3 At the South-West corner 4. At the South-East corner
84.It
was 9•35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena
informed
her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9•25 a.m. Reena’s
watch is 5 minutes fast. The
frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes.
For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next
bus?
| ||||||||||||||||||
85. Among
A, B, P, Q and S, B is immediate next taller than the shortest and Q is
taller
than P. Which of he following statements (s) is (are) necessary
to decide the tallest among
them?
(A) P is not as tall as S.
(B) A is third below Q in height
(C) P is second in height above A
1. Only (A) or (B) 2. Only (B) or (C)
3 Only (A) or (C) 4(A) or (B) or (C)
86.If
A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B
means A is
the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which
of the following shows that P is
the maternal uncle of Q? Ans: C
1. Q - N + M x P 2. P + S x N – Q 3. P - M + N x Q 4. Q - S % P
87. Find out the missing number:-
1. 6 2.8 3.4 4.3
88. Five
boys are sitting in a row. Sudhir is sitting next to Prakash but not
Tarun. Kumar
is sitting next to Ravi who is sitting on the extreme left
and Tarun is not sitting next to
Kumar. Who are sitting on either side
of Sudhir?
1. Prakash & Kumar 2. Prakash &Ravi 3.Tarun & Prakash 4. Prakash alone
89. How
many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers
whiich
are immediately followedby an odd number as well as immediately
preceded by an even number?
8 6 7 6 8 9 3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3 5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9
1. One 2. Three 3. Five 4. None of these.
|
Directions–(Q. 91–95) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C ★ G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y
91. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?
1. E 2 P 3. I 4.@
92. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
1. 3 2. A 3. N 4. S
93. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the
above arrangement?
1 V 2.4 3. % 4. E
94.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their
positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group ?
1. IM% 2. CNG 3. 3#N 4 UGC
95.
How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number
?
1. None 2. One 3. Two 4.Three
Ratio of Exports to Imports (in terms of money in Rs. crores) of Two Companies Over the Years
 |
96. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports for Company A?
1.2 2.3 3. 4 4.5
97. If the imports of Company A in 1997 were increased by 40 percent, what would be the ratio of exports to the increased imports?
1. 1.25 2. 1.20 3. 1.30 4.None
98. If the exports of Company A in 1998 were Rs. 237 crores, what was the amount of imports in that year?
1.Rs. 189.6 crores 2. Rs. 243 crores 3. Rs. 281 crores 4. Rs. 316 crores
99. In
1995, the export of Company A was double that of Company B. If the
imports of Company A during the year was Rs. 180 crores, what was the
approximate amount of imports pf Company B during that year?
1.Rs. 190 crores 2. Rs. 210 crores 3. Rs. 225 crores 4. Cannot be determined
100. In which year(s) was the difference between imports and exports of Company B the maximum?
1.2000 2.1996 3. 1998 to 2000 4. Cannot be determined
Answers :-
1- 1 , 2- 3 , 3- 4 , 4- 3 , 5- 3 , 6- 3 , 7-4 , 8-3 , 9- 2 , 10-2 , 11-3 , 12- 2 , 13- 3 ,
14- 3 , 15-2 , 16- 2 , 17- 4 , 18-3 , 19-2 ,20- 3 , 21-2 , 22-4 , 23-2, 24-4, 25-3, 26- 4,
27- 1, 28- 4 , 29- 3, 30- 2 , 31- 4 , 32- 2 , 33- 1 , 34- 2 , 35- 2 , 36- 2 , 37- 1,38-3 , 39- 2,
40- 2, 41-3, 42- 1, 43- 4, 44- 4, 45- 1 , 46- 2 , 47-3 , 48- 1 , 49- 4 , 50- 2 , 51- 4, 52- 4 ,
53- 1, 54- 3, 55- 1, 56- 1, 57- 4 ,58- 2 ,59- 2 , 60- 3 , 61- 3 , 62- 2 , 63- 4 , 64- 2, 65- 1 ,
66- 2, 67- 1 , 68- 3 , 69- 2, 70- 1, 71- 1, 72- 4, 73- 4 , 74- 3, 75- 4 , 76- 3, 77- 1, 78- 2,
79- 2, 80- 4, 81- 3, 82- 3, 83- 4, 84- 1, 85- 1, 86- 3, 87- 3, 88- 1, 89- 4, 90- 2, 91- 4,
92- 4, 93- 3, 94- 4, 95- 3, 96- 2, 97- 1, 98-4, 99- 2, 100- 4
|
MODEL QUESTION PAPER FOR GDS TO
MTS EXAMINATION
{CLICK HERE FOR DETAILS}
No comments:
Post a Comment